Re: [ox-en] [Upd-discuss] Paper:"Digital property" By Sabine Nuss - Response to Stallman
- From: Michael Bouwens <michelsub2003 yahoo.com>
- Date: Fri, 7 Oct 2005 03:59:06 -0700 (PDT)
My conclusion is:
In the material world the scarcity is artificial
as well, it is the
result of the private property regime:
Absolutely. Indeed this was one of the early
insights you gave to
Oekonux :-) .
I do have problems with this. On the one hand, I
understand that property creates scarcity, artificial
scarcity. But does that necessarily mean that there is
no objective scarcity in the good itself. After all,is
that not the difference between non-rival and rival
goods.
For example, even when there is enough food for
everyone, the money system may create an unability to
buy that food. But, the world's resources are finite
aren't they. Even before there was feudal land
property, tribes were fighting to access to better
land, because good land is scarce.
Why is this important. Because I think that peer
production can work for non-rival goods without
reciprocity; but when you dealing with scarce physical
goods, reciprocity will be required.
Even without capitalism, without 'scarce' money, the
resources will still be limited.
or not?? I'd like to be convinced,
Michel Bauwens
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