Re: [ox-en] Re: [ox-en] Re: [ox-en] built-in infinite growth (was: Re: Meaning ofmarkets, scarcity, abundance)
- From: Michael Bauwens <michelsub2003 yahoo.com>
- Date: Wed, 9 Jan 2008 01:23:16 -0800 (PST)
Michel's approach to the collapse of the classical economies as being
due to finding more efficient social ways to increase production.
Surely the Roman ruling class was also competing in various ways for power and influence and the means needed to that and resulting from that. Surely it was also a economy and production system and access to resources, and their relative productivity, was also a factor. We should not read our contemporary intentions into the past, but that does not mean that certain processes, which we now see but they couldn't see, were effectively at work.
What is your take on the collapse of the Roman slave system, and the general cycle of collapse of slave-based societies and tributary systems?
Why did feudalism develop in the West, and not another slave-based system? Why did the former win, if not because it somehow also offered a more productive venue for society and its rulers?
I"m interested in your answers,
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